Julie in GA
02-03-2008, 09:10 PM
Our Latin book (LiCT, Vol 2) describes the pluperfect tense (or past perfect in English) as referring to something which has happened a long long time ago. Example given:
perfect tense: I studied yesterday.
pluperfect tense: I had studied a long time ago.
I thought that the pluperfect tense refers to a past action that, when compared to another past action, has already been completed.
Example: By the time I turned 40, I had given birth to 4 children.
This would be the opposite of the "imperfect" tense, which describes a past action that was still going on when compared to another past event (or any continual past action).
Example: I was drinking tea when the lights went off.
So is the "way long ago" definition just an easier one for kids to understand at first? Is that why its used?
I need confirmation or correction. Thanks!
perfect tense: I studied yesterday.
pluperfect tense: I had studied a long time ago.
I thought that the pluperfect tense refers to a past action that, when compared to another past action, has already been completed.
Example: By the time I turned 40, I had given birth to 4 children.
This would be the opposite of the "imperfect" tense, which describes a past action that was still going on when compared to another past event (or any continual past action).
Example: I was drinking tea when the lights went off.
So is the "way long ago" definition just an easier one for kids to understand at first? Is that why its used?
I need confirmation or correction. Thanks!